The MPESB Nursing Officer exam for the current 2,317-post cycle concluded in May 2026. This article is built for candidates preparing for the next MPESB Nursing cycle — a thorough pattern analysis of what MPESB Nursing exams consistently cover, subject-wise topic breakdowns, representative practice questions, a strategy for the 0.25 negative marking rule, a Sister Tutor specific section, and a preparation schedule.
MPESB does not publicly release official previous year papers. What you will find here is a structured analysis of the exam pattern built from the official notification syllabus, MPESB exam precedents, and subject-matter alignment with similar state nursing recruitment exams (AIIMS, ESIC, Railway Nursing).
| Exam Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Conducting Body | Madhya Pradesh Employee Selection Board (MPESB) |
| Posts | 2,099 Nursing Officer + 218 Sister Tutor (2026 cycle) |
| Mode | Computer Based Test (CBT) — bilingual (Hindi + English) |
| Total Questions | ~100–150 MCQs (1 mark each) |
| Duration | 2 Hours (120 minutes) |
| Negative Marking | ¼ mark (0.25) deducted per wrong answer |
| Selection | Written CBT → Document Verification (no interview) |
Section 1: Medical-Surgical Nursing (25–30 Questions)
This is the single heaviest section. Questions focus on nursing interventions, patient positioning, drug dosages, pre/post-op care — not just diagnosis. Know the WHY behind each nursing action.
| System / Area | Expected Qs | Key Topics to Cover |
|---|---|---|
| Cardiovascular Nursing | 4–5 | MI care (MONA), heart failure positioning, hypertension monitoring, arrhythmia recognition |
| Respiratory Nursing | 3–4 | COPD oxygen therapy (low-flow), TB isolation precautions, pneumonia position, nebulization |
| Renal Nursing | 3–4 | CKD fluid restriction, dialysis care, catheter care, AKI vs CKD distinction |
| Neurological Nursing | 3–4 | ICP management (HOB 30°), seizure safety, GCS scoring, stroke-side positioning |
| Endocrine Nursing | 3–4 | Hypoglycemia (Rule of 15), DKA management, thyroid storm, Addisonian crisis |
| Pre/Post-operative Nursing | 4–5 | Pre-op checklist (consent, NPO, jewellery), wound care, drain types, early ambulation |
| Oncology Nursing | 2–3 | Chemotherapy side effects, neutropenia precautions, pain management ladder (WHO) |
Practice Questions — Medical-Surgical Nursing
Q1. A patient with increased ICP should be positioned with head of bed at —
(a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) Flat (0°)
Ans: (b) — 30° HOB reduces ICP while maintaining cerebral perfusion pressure
Q2. Which oxygen delivery device is correct for a COPD patient requiring supplemental O₂?
(a) Non-rebreather mask at 10–15 L/min (b) Nasal cannula at 1–2 L/min (c) Simple face mask at 8 L/min (d) Venturi mask at 35%
Ans: (b) — Low-flow O₂ (1–2 L/min) prevents suppression of hypoxic drive in COPD
Q3. The MONA protocol for acute MI stands for —
(a) Morphine, Oxygen, Nitrate, Aspirin (b) Metoprolol, Oxygen, Naloxone, Atropine (c) Morphine, ORS, Nitrate, Amiodarone (d) Midazolam, Oxygen, Nitrate, Aspirin
Ans: (a) — Morphine (pain), Oxygen (if SpO₂ <90%), Nitroglycerin (vasodilation), Aspirin (antiplatelet)
Q4. Which position is contraindicated in cardiogenic shock?
(a) Semi-Fowler's (b) Supine with legs elevated (Trendelenburg) (c) Lateral (d) Orthopnoeic
Ans: (b) — Trendelenburg increases venous return and worsens cardiac workload in cardiogenic shock; Semi-Fowler's 30–45° is preferred
Q5. A patient returns from surgery with a Jackson-Pratt drain. The nurse should —
(a) Leave the bulb fully expanded (b) Compress the bulb and recap after emptying (c) Remove the drain after 24 hours (d) Irrigate the drain every 2 hours
Ans: (b) — JP drain works on gentle suction; bulb must be compressed (squeezed) and sealed after emptying to maintain suction
Q6. A patient with blood glucose of 52 mg/dL is conscious and able to swallow. The nurse should —
(a) Give IV dextrose immediately (b) Give 15g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck in 15 minutes (c) Call the physician and wait (d) Give 1 mg glucagon IM
Ans: (b) — Rule of 15: 15g carbohydrate (3–4 glucose tablets, 4 oz juice), recheck after 15 min; IV/glucagon only if unconscious
Section 2: Community Health Nursing (15–20 Questions)
| Topic | Expected Qs | Key Focus |
|---|---|---|
| PHC/CHC/Sub-centre infrastructure | 3–4 | Sub-centre: 3–5K population, 1 ANM+1 HW; PHC: 20–30K; CHC: 80–120K + 30 beds |
| National Health Programs | 4–5 | NTEP (DOTS regimens), NVBDCP (malaria/dengue/kala-azar), ASHA incentives |
| Immunization (UIP schedule) | 2–3 | BCG-birth; OPV-birth+6+10+14wk+9m; DPT-6+10+14wk+16-24m; MR-9m+16-24m |
| Maternal & Child Health programs | 2–3 | JSY beneficiary criteria, JSSK entitlements, MCH register |
| MP health schemes | 2–3 | SAST, Ladli Laxmi 2.0, Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima, Ayushman Bharat (PMJAY) |
| Epidemiology basics | 2–3 | IMR/MMR/NMR/TFR definitions; India vs MP figures |
Practice Questions — Community Health
Q1. The catchment population for a Primary Health Centre (PHC) is —
(a) 3,000–5,000 (b) 20,000–30,000 (c) 80,000–1,20,000 (d) 50,000
Ans: (b) — PHC serves 20,000–30,000 population; Sub-centre serves 3,000–5,000; CHC serves 80,000–1,20,000
Q2. Under UIP, Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine is given at —
(a) Birth and 9 months (b) 9 months and 16–24 months (c) 6 weeks and 14 weeks (d) 5 years only
Ans: (b) — MR at 9 months (replacing Measles) and booster at 16–24 months
Q3. DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment Short-course) is used for which disease?
(a) Malaria (b) HIV/AIDS (c) Tuberculosis (d) Dengue
Ans: (c) — DOTS is the WHO-recommended TB treatment strategy; now part of NTEP in India
Q4. The 'Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)' provides cash incentive to —
(a) Any pregnant woman delivering at home (b) BPL pregnant women delivering at government health facilities (c) All pregnant women regardless of income (d) Only SC/ST women
Ans: (b) — JSY targets BPL women (all in LPS states) for institutional delivery; cash incentive varies by state category
Section 3: OBG Nursing — Obstetrics & Gynaecology (12–18 Questions)
| Topic | Expected Qs | Key Focus |
|---|---|---|
| Antenatal care — schedule, danger signs | 3–4 | Min 4 ANC visits; danger signs: bleeding, severe headache, visual disturbances, reduced fetal movement |
| Normal labour — stages, management | 3–4 | Stage I (latent 0–4cm, active 4–10cm); Stage II (delivery); Stage III (placenta, 30 min limit) |
| High-risk pregnancy complications | 2–3 | PIH vs pre-eclampsia vs eclampsia; placenta previa vs abruptio; GDM management |
| Neonatal care — APGAR, resuscitation | 2–3 | APGAR: A(ppearance), P(ulse), G(rimace), A(ctivity), R(espiration); score at 1 & 5 min |
| Family planning methods | 2–3 | Failure rates: OCP <1%, condom 2–15%, IUCD <1%; IUCD: inserted within 48hr postpartum or after 6wk |
Practice Questions — OBG Nursing
Q1. A primigravida is in active labour. The normal rate of cervical dilatation in active phase is —
(a) 0.5 cm/hour (b) 1 cm/hour (c) 2 cm/hour (d) 3 cm/hour
Ans: (b) — Friedman curve: active phase dilatation ≥1 cm/hour in primigravida; arrest if <0.5 cm/2 hours
Q2. A newborn at 1 minute has: blue hands/feet (score 1), HR 110 (score 2), cries weakly (score 1), some limb flexion (score 1), breathing slowly (score 1). APGAR score is —
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 4
Ans: (b) — Sum = 1+2+1+1+1 = 6; score 4–6 = moderate depression, stimulate and reassess at 5 min
Q3. The difference between placenta previa and abruptio placentae is —
(a) Placenta previa = painful + dark blood; abruptio = painless + bright red blood (b) Placenta previa = painless + bright red blood; abruptio = painful + dark concealed bleeding (c) Both present with painless bleeding (d) Both present with painful bleeding
Ans: (b) — Previa: painless, bright red, antepartum; Abruptio: sudden severe pain, board-like abdomen, concealed or revealed dark bleeding
Section 4: Paediatric Nursing (8–12 Questions)
| Topic | Expected Qs | Key Focus |
|---|---|---|
| Growth milestones (age-linked) | 2–3 | Doubles birth weight at 5 months, triples at 1 year; walks at 12–15 months; speaks 2-word sentences at 2 years |
| Common childhood illnesses | 2–3 | Pneumonia (WHO classification: fast breathing, chest indrawing, danger signs), diarrhea (ORS 75 vs 45), measles nursing |
| Nutrition — PEM, vitamins | 2 | Marasmus vs Kwashiorkor; Vit A megadose (6m+); iron supplementation (6m–5yrs) |
| Immunization for children | 2 | Full UIP schedule; catch-up vaccination; cold chain requirements |
Practice Questions — Paediatric Nursing
Q1. A child doubles birth weight at —
(a) 3 months (b) 5 months (c) 9 months (d) 12 months
Ans: (b) — Doubles at 5 months; triples at 1 year; quadruples at 2 years
Q2. WHO classification of pneumonia in a child aged 2–59 months with fast breathing (≥50/min for 2–11 months; ≥40/min for 12–59 months) but no chest indrawing or danger signs is —
(a) No pneumonia (b) Non-severe pneumonia (c) Severe pneumonia (d) Very severe disease
Ans: (b) — Fast breathing alone = non-severe pneumonia; treat with oral amoxicillin at home
Section 5: Psychiatric Nursing (6–10 Questions)
| Topic | Expected Qs | Key Focus |
|---|---|---|
| Mental disorder classification & features | 3–4 | Schizophrenia (positive vs negative symptoms), depression (PHQ-9 criteria), bipolar disorder phases |
| Therapeutic communication techniques | 2–3 | Restating, reflecting, open-ended Q, silence — vs non-therapeutic (giving advice, false reassurance) |
| Psychiatric medications — classes & SE | 2–3 | Antipsychotics: EPS side effects, clozapine agranulocytosis; SSRIs: serotonin syndrome; Lithium toxicity signs |
| De-escalation & safety | 1–2 | Safe room principles, suicide risk assessment (SAD PERSONS scale), restraint as last resort |
Practice Questions — Psychiatric Nursing
Q1. A patient on haloperidol develops rigidity, tremor, bradykinesia, and mask-like face. The nurse recognizes this as —
(a) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (b) Tardive dyskinesia (c) Parkinsonism (EPS) (d) Akathisia
Ans: (c) — Drug-induced Parkinsonism (EPS): rigidity, tremor, bradykinesia — treated with anticholinergics (benztropine)
Q2. A patient says "I feel like nobody loves me." The most therapeutic nurse response is —
(a) "That's not true — your family loves you." (b) "Tell me more about what you mean." (c) "Everyone feels that way sometimes." (d) "Let's talk about something positive."
Ans: (b) — Open-ended exploration encourages the patient to elaborate; (a) is false reassurance; (c) minimizes; (d) deflects
Section 6: Pharmacology (6–10 Questions)
| Category | Expected Qs | High-Yield Points |
|---|---|---|
| Antibiotics — classes & coverage | 2–3 | Penicillin (gram+), aminoglycosides (gram−), metronidazole (anaerobes/protozoa); allergy cross-reaction |
| Analgesics — WHO pain ladder | 1–2 | Step 1: non-opioid (paracetamol, NSAIDs); Step 2: mild opioids (tramadol); Step 3: strong opioids (morphine) |
| Cardiovascular drugs | 1–2 | Digoxin toxicity signs (bradycardia, yellow-green vision, nausea); heparin antidote = protamine sulfate |
| Emergency drugs | 2–3 | Adrenaline 1:1000 IM for anaphylaxis; atropine for bradycardia; naloxone for opioid overdose; flumazenil for benzodiazepine OD |
Practice Questions — Pharmacology
Q1. The antidote for heparin overdose is —
(a) Vitamin K (b) Protamine sulfate (c) FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma) (d) Naloxone
Ans: (b) — Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin; Vitamin K reverses warfarin; Naloxone reverses opioids
Q2. A patient on digoxin reports seeing yellow-green halos around lights. The nurse should —
(a) Reassure and continue medication (b) Hold the dose and notify the physician immediately (c) Give the next dose with food (d) Increase the dose to correct the vision
Ans: (b) — Yellow-green visual disturbance is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity; hold dose, check serum digoxin level and electrolytes (K⁺)
Section 7: Anatomy & Physiology (6–10 Questions)
| System | Expected Qs | Key Topics |
|---|---|---|
| Cardiovascular — heart anatomy, ECG | 2–3 | Heart chambers, valves, conduction system (SA→AV→Bundle of His→Purkinje); normal ECG waves |
| Respiratory — lung volumes, gas exchange | 2 | TV=500mL, IRV=3000mL, ERV=1100mL, RV=1200mL; Alveolar O₂/CO₂ exchange |
| Renal — nephron function, GFR | 1–2 | Glomerular filtration; tubular reabsorption; normal GFR 90–120 mL/min; urine output 0.5–1 mL/kg/hr |
| Endocrine — glands and hormones | 2 | Insulin (beta cells, Islets of Langerhans); ADH (posterior pituitary); cortisol (adrenal cortex) |
Q1. The normal resting cardiac output in an adult is approximately —
(a) 2–3 L/min (b) 5–6 L/min (c) 8–10 L/min (d) 1–2 L/min
Ans: (b) — CO = HR × SV = 70 bpm × 70 mL = ~4,900 mL = ~5 L/min at rest
Section 8: Nutrition & Biochemistry (5–8 Questions)
| Topic | Expected Qs | Key Points |
|---|---|---|
| Therapeutic diets — disease-specific | 2–3 | CKD: low protein + low K+ + low phosphorus; DM: low GI, complex carbs; cardiac: low Na+, low saturated fat |
| Vitamins — deficiency diseases | 1–2 | Vit A: night blindness; B1 (thiamine): beriberi; B12: pernicious anaemia; C: scurvy; D: rickets; K: coagulation defect |
| Enteral & Parenteral nutrition | 1–2 | NGT feeding: position check, residual check before each feed; TPN via central line only |
Section 9: Nursing Management & Administration (4–6 Questions)
| Topic | Expected Qs | Key Focus |
|---|---|---|
| Hospital hierarchy — nursing chain of command | 1–2 | CNO → Nursing Superintendent → Deputy NS → Ward Sister → Staff Nurse → Student Nurse |
| Infection control — standard precautions | 1–2 | Hand hygiene (5 moments); PPE sequence (donning/doffing); isolation types (contact, droplet, airborne) |
| Documentation principles | 1 | SOAP/DAR notes; incident reports; do's and don'ts of nursing documentation |
| Hospital waste management | 1 | Yellow bag (infectious), red bag (contaminated recyclable), blue (sharp/glass), black (general) |
Q1. The correct order for removing PPE (doffing) after leaving an isolation room is —
(a) Gloves → Gown → Goggles → Mask (b) Mask → Gloves → Gown → Goggles (c) Gown → Gloves → Goggles → Mask (d) Goggles → Gown → Gloves → Mask
Ans: (a) — Gloves first (most contaminated), then gown, then goggles/face shield, then mask last — then hand hygiene after each step
Section 10: MP General Knowledge (5–10 Questions)
| Topic | Expected Qs | Preparation Points |
|---|---|---|
| MP geography — rivers, districts, boundaries | 2–3 | Narmada, Tapti, Chambal, Betwa rivers; 55 districts; borders UP, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh |
| MP health schemes — state-specific | 2–3 | Ladli Laxmi Yojana (girl child), Mukhyamantri Bal Hriday Upchar (free heart surgery ≤15yrs), SAST (tribal health) |
| MP current affairs | 1–2 | CM, Governor, MP GK basics; state animal (Barasingha), bird (Dudhraj), tree (Banyan), flower (white lily) |
| Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY in MP | 1 | ₹5L cover per family/year; 50 crore beneficiaries nationally |
Sister Tutor — Specific Additions
The Sister Tutor role at MPESB covers an additional layer of nursing education, curriculum planning, and clinical teaching. Questions specific to Sister Tutor posts cover:
| Sister Tutor Topic | Expected Qs | Key Coverage |
|---|---|---|
| Nursing education — curriculum design | 3–4 | INC (Indian Nursing Council) curriculum; B.Sc Nursing vs GNM curriculum structure; competency-based education |
| Clinical teaching methods | 3–4 | Bedside teaching, case study method, simulation, return demonstration; Bloom's taxonomy application |
| Assessment & evaluation — nursing students | 2–3 | OSCE (Objective Structured Clinical Examination); formative vs summative evaluation; log book assessment |
| Nursing research basics | 2 | Types of research (descriptive, experimental, qualitative); literature review; sampling methods |
| INC regulations & nursing ethics | 2–3 | INC Act 1947; State Nursing Councils; code of ethics; patient rights; informed consent |
Negative Marking — Detailed Strategy
| Confidence Level | Action | Reasoning |
|---|---|---|
| 80%+ confident | Mark the answer | Expected value is +0.75 (0.8×1 − 0.2×0.25) |
| 60–80% confident | Mark if you can eliminate 2 options | With 2 options left: 50% chance = +0.375 expected value |
| 40–60% confident | Skip | Expected value is negative or near zero — not worth the risk |
| Below 40% | Definitely skip | Random guessing = −0.0625 expected value per question |
| Completely unsure (4 options equal) | Skip | 25% chance: expected = 0.25×1 − 0.75×0.25 = −0.0625 |
3-Month Preparation Schedule
| Month | Focus | Weekly Target |
|---|---|---|
| Month 1 (Weeks 1–4) | Medical-Surgical + Community Health | Medical-Surg: 1 system/week (CVS, Respiratory, Renal, Neuro); Community Health: all national programs + UIP schedule |
| Month 2 (Weeks 5–8) | OBG + Paediatric + Psychiatric + Pharmacology | OBG: antenatal + labour + complications; Paediatric: milestones + common illnesses; Psych: disorders + drugs; Pharmacology: drug classes + emergency drugs |
| Month 3 (Weeks 9–12) | A&P + Nutrition + Nursing Mgmt + MP GK + Mock Tests | A&P + Nutrition: 1 week; Nursing Mgmt + MP GK: 1 week; Weeks 11–12: full mock exams, analyse errors, revise weak areas |
| Best Study Resources | Why |
|---|---|
| Jaypee's Medical-Surgical Nursing (Brunner & Suddarth adapted) | Primary clinical nursing reference — most MPESB questions align with standard textbook content |
| Community Health Nursing by B.T. Basavanthappa | Complete national program coverage; India-specific statistics |
| AIIMS Nursing previous year papers (2018–2024) | Same pattern, same nursing domains — best available substitute for MPESB PYPs |
| ESIC Staff Nurse exam papers (State Council exams) | State-level nursing exam pattern closest to MPESB |
| MP GK — Lucent or Arihant MP GK book | State-specific schemes, geography, current affairs |
