AIIMS CRE Previous Year Papers 2026: Topic Analysis, Practice Questions & 30-Day Plan
AIIMS CRE-5 has 1,484 Group B and C posts across multiple AIIMS institutes with the deadline on July 3, 2026. While official AIIMS CRE previous year papers are not publicly distributed by AIIMS, the exam has been conducted as CRE-1, CRE-2, CRE-3, and CRE-4 before this cycle. Candidates who appeared in earlier editions and coaching platforms like Testbook, Adda247, and Scribd communities have documented topic patterns. This article uses that pattern data to tell you exactly what to study, how the paper is structured, and gives you 12 pattern-based practice questions to test yourself. None of the questions below are claimed to be official paper reproductions — they are pattern-based practice questions based on topic frequency analysis.
⚠ Pattern-Based Article: The questions in this article are practice questions modelled on topic frequency from past AIIMS CRE exams as reported by candidates and platforms. They are NOT official released papers from AIIMS. Use them for practice, not as a guarantee of exact questions.
👉 AIIMS CRE Eligibility 2026 — Before you start preparing, confirm your post-wise age limit, qualification, and fee.
AIIMS CRE History — CRE-1 to CRE-5
AIIMS CRE is not a one-off exam. It is the standard central recruitment mechanism for paramedical, technical, and administrative posts across all AIIMS institutes. Understanding how the exam has evolved helps you calibrate your preparation.
| CRE Edition | Year | Key Developments |
|---|
| CRE-1 | 2017 | First common exam across AIIMS institutes. Pattern established: General section + post-specific section. Questions were basic, difficulty was easy to moderate. |
| CRE-2 | 2019 | Syllabus for technical posts (Pharmacist, MLT, Radiographer) was made more structured. Health GK section expanded to include National Health Mission. |
| CRE-3 | 2021 | Conducted during post-COVID period. Computer section weight increased for administrative posts (JAA, Clerk). COVID-era health policy questions appeared (Cowin, vaccination drive). |
| CRE-4 | 2023–24 | Ayushman Bharat and PM-JAY questions appeared consistently. AIIMS expansion data (number of AIIMS institutes, newly commissioned) featured in GK section. Technical difficulty rose — Pharmacology and MLT sections saw application-based questions. |
| CRE-5 | 2026 (current) | 1,484 posts. Exam likely follows CRE-4 pattern. General section expected to include current health schemes, number of AIIMS in India, and computer basics. |
Exam Pattern — General Structure (All Posts)
| Section | Questions | Details |
|---|
| General Section | 20 | Common to ALL posts. Health GK + Reasoning + Computer basics. |
| Post-specific Technical Section | 80 | Varies by post — see post-wise breakdown below. |
| Total | 100 | MCQ format, negative marking (as per notification — verify exact penalty) |
| Duration | — | Typically 2 hours for the full paper (verify in official notification) |
General Section — Topic Frequency Analysis (20 Questions)
The General section is the same for every post. Whether you are a Pharmacist or a JAA candidate, you answer the same 20 General questions. This is where you pick up easy marks regardless of your background. Here is the topic pattern based on past editions:
| Topic | Expected Questions | Common Sub-topics |
|---|
| Healthcare Awareness — AIIMS facts | 3–4 Qs | How many AIIMS are there in India, which AIIMS is newest, AIIMS New Delhi founding year (1956) |
| National Health Schemes | 3–4 Qs | Ayushman Bharat / PM-JAY (launched 2018), PMJAY beneficiary target, Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana, NHM |
| Basic Biology / Human Body | 2–3 Qs | Functions of organs, vitamins (deficiency diseases), basic physiology — heart chambers, blood groups |
| Reasoning — Series & Analogy | 4–5 Qs | Number series, letter analogy, odd one out, coding-decoding |
| Computer Basics | 3–4 Qs | MS Office (Excel shortcut, Word function), internet (HTTP, email), input/output devices, operating system basics |
| General English (reading) | 1–2 Qs | Synonym/antonym or fill in the blank (occasional, not always present) |
Pharmacist Paper — Topic Frequency Analysis
| Subject Area | Expected Questions (in 80 technical Qs) | Focus Topics |
|---|
| Pharmacology | 25–30 Qs | Drug classes (antibiotics, NSAIDs, antihypertensives), mechanism of action, drug interactions, ADRs |
| Pharmaceutical Chemistry | 15–20 Qs | Chemical structure of key drugs, assay methods, acid-base chemistry in pharma context |
| Pharmacy Practice & Clinical | 10–12 Qs | Drug dispensing, prescription reading, patient counselling, hospital pharmacy functions |
| Pharmacognosy | 8–10 Qs | Plant-derived drugs (morphine, quinine, atropine), crude drug identification |
| Pharmaceutical Analysis | 8–10 Qs | Titration methods, UV-Vis spectroscopy basics, HPLC (conceptual) |
| Pharmaceutics / Formulation | 5–8 Qs | Dosage forms (tablet, suspension, emulsion), bioavailability, routes of administration |
JMLT Paper — Topic Frequency Analysis
| Subject Area | Expected Questions (in 80 technical Qs) | Focus Topics |
|---|
| Haematology | 20–25 Qs | CBC interpretation, blood cell morphology, coagulation cascade, blood disorders (anemia types, thalassemia) |
| Microbiology | 18–22 Qs | Bacteria identification, culture media, antibiotic sensitivity, common pathogens by organ system |
| Biochemistry | 15–18 Qs | Liver function tests, kidney function tests, glucose metabolism, enzyme assays (AST, ALT, ALP) |
| Clinical Pathology / Urinalysis | 10–12 Qs | Urine routine examination, CSF analysis, body fluid examination |
| Blood Bank / Transfusion Medicine | 8–10 Qs | ABO and Rh typing, cross-matching, blood components (platelets, FFP, packed RBC), transfusion reactions |
| Histopathology basics | 4–6 Qs | Fixatives (formalin), staining methods (H&E, Ziehl-Neelsen, Gram stain) |
Radiographer Paper — Topic Frequency Analysis
| Subject Area | Expected Questions (in 80 technical Qs) | Focus Topics |
|---|
| Anatomy & Positioning | 22–28 Qs | Radiographic positioning (PA chest, AP abdomen, lateral skull), anatomical landmarks, patient positioning errors |
| Radiographic Techniques | 18–22 Qs | kV, mA, exposure time relationships, image quality (contrast, density, sharpness), film vs digital DR |
| Radiation Protection & Physics | 15–18 Qs | ALARA principle, radiation units (Gray, Sievert, Becquerel), personal protective equipment, dose limits |
| CT & MRI Basics | 10–12 Qs | CT Hounsfield units, window/level settings, MRI sequences (T1, T2), contrast agents (barium, iodine) |
| Special Procedures | 6–8 Qs | IVP, barium meal, barium enema, mammography basics, interventional radiology (conceptual) |
JAA / Administrative Posts — Topic Frequency Analysis
| Subject Area | Expected Questions (in 80 technical Qs) | Focus Topics |
|---|
| Computer Proficiency — MS Office | 25–30 Qs | MS Word shortcuts (Ctrl+H, Ctrl+Z), Excel functions (SUM, VLOOKUP), PowerPoint slide design, Outlook email management |
| Internet & Networking | 15–18 Qs | URL structure, HTTP vs HTTPS, email protocols (SMTP, POP3, IMAP), search engine basics, LAN vs WAN |
| General English | 15–18 Qs | Grammar (tense, active-passive), vocabulary (synonyms/antonyms), comprehension passage |
| Reasoning | 12–15 Qs | Logical sequences, analogy, blood relations, seating arrangement (simple) |
| Basic HTML & Database (conceptual) | 5–8 Qs | HTML tags (basic), database terminology (table, record, field), file extensions |
👉 AIIMS CRE Syllabus 2026 — For a structured, section-by-section topic list for every post, read the full syllabus guide.
How AIIMS Medical GK Has Grown — What to Study in 2026
The General section health GK has become more specific with each CRE edition. Here is what has gained prominence since CRE-3 and is likely to continue in CRE-5:
- Number of functional AIIMS in India: As of 2026, there are 23 AIIMS operational or under advanced construction. AIIMS New Delhi (established 1956) remains the nodal body. New AIIMS include Bilaspur, Rajkot, Bibinagar, Darbhanga, and others commissioned under PM-ABHIM.
- Ayushman Bharat / PM-JAY: Launched September 23, 2018. Covers ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization. Target: 10 crore poor and vulnerable families. Managed by National Health Authority (NHA). Extended to include senior citizens aged 70+ (Ayushman Vaya Vandana) in 2024.
- Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY): The scheme under which new AIIMS are being established. Aim is to correct regional imbalances in healthcare and reduce patient burden on AIIMS Delhi.
- National Health Mission (NHM): Launched 2013. Includes NRHM (rural) and NUHM (urban). Key programmes: Janani Suraksha Yojana, Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram.
- Hospital-acquired Infections (HAI) / NABH: NABH (National Accreditation Board for Hospitals) accreditation — questions on infection control, hand hygiene protocols appeared in CRE-3 and CRE-4.
- Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS): Provides comprehensive healthcare to central government employees — featured in CRE past editions.
12 Pattern-Based Practice Questions with Answers
These are practice questions modelled on the topic frequency patterns described above. They are not from any official AIIMS paper. Use them to assess your preparation level.
General Section (Questions 1–5)
Q1. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY provides a health cover of _______ per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization.
(A) ₹1 lakh (B) ₹2.5 lakh (C) ₹5 lakh (D) ₹10 lakh
Answer: (C) ₹5 lakh. PM-JAY offers ₹5 lakh per annum per family for listed secondary and tertiary care procedures. Launched September 23, 2018 under Ayushman Bharat mission.
Q2. AIIMS New Delhi was established by an Act of Parliament in the year:
(A) 1947 (B) 1952 (C) 1956 (D) 1962
Answer: (C) 1956. AIIMS New Delhi was established under the AIIMS Act, 1956. It remains the nodal institute for CRE coordination.
Q3. In MS Excel, which function is used to find the highest value in a range of cells?
(A) MAX() (B) HIGH() (C) PEAK() (D) TOP()
Answer: (A) MAX(). MAX() returns the maximum value in a range. MIN() returns the minimum. AVERAGE() returns the mean.
Q4. In a number series: 3, 6, 12, 24, ?, 96 — what is the missing number?
(A) 36 (B) 42 (C) 48 (D) 54
Answer: (C) 48. Each term is multiplied by 2: 3 → 6 → 12 → 24 → 48 → 96.
Q5. Vitamin C deficiency causes which disease?
(A) Rickets (B) Scurvy (C) Pellagra (D) Beriberi
Answer: (B) Scurvy. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency causes scurvy. Rickets = Vitamin D deficiency. Pellagra = Niacin (B3) deficiency. Beriberi = Thiamine (B1) deficiency.
Pharmacist Paper (Questions 6–8)
Q6. Which class of antibiotics inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)?
(A) Aminoglycosides (B) Macrolides (C) Beta-lactams (D) Fluoroquinolones
Answer: (C) Beta-lactams. Beta-lactam antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs. Aminoglycosides inhibit 30S ribosome. Macrolides inhibit 50S. Fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase/topoisomerase IV.
Q7. The drug of choice for Plasmodium falciparum uncomplicated malaria (non-severe) in India as per current guidelines is:
(A) Chloroquine (B) Primaquine alone (C) Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT) (D) Quinine
Answer: (C) Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT). Due to widespread chloroquine resistance in P. falciparum, ACT (e.g., Artesunate + Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine or Artemether-Lumefantrine) is the current standard of care. Chloroquine is still used for P. vivax in India where resistance is not established.
Q8. Bioavailability of a drug administered intravenously is:
(A) 50% (B) 75% (C) 100% (D) Depends on the drug
Answer: (C) 100%. By definition, IV administration bypasses first-pass metabolism and delivers the drug entirely into systemic circulation. Oral bioavailability is always less than 100% due to absorption limitations and first-pass effect.
JMLT Paper (Questions 9–10)
Q9. A patient has Hb 7.5 g/dL, MCV 68 fL, MCH 22 pg. Which type of anemia does this suggest?
(A) Megaloblastic anemia (B) Iron deficiency anemia (C) Hemolytic anemia (D) Aplastic anemia
Answer: (B) Iron deficiency anemia. Low Hb + low MCV (microcytic) + low MCH (hypochromic) = classic iron deficiency anemia pattern. Megaloblastic anemia is macrocytic (high MCV). Hemolytic anemia is typically normocytic. Aplastic anemia shows pancytopenia.
Q10. Which culture medium is used for isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
(A) MacConkey agar (B) Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium (C) Chocolate agar (D) TCBS agar
Answer: (B) Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium. LJ medium contains eggs, glycerol, and malachite green (inhibits contaminants) — selective for mycobacteria. MacConkey is for Gram-negative enteric bacteria. Chocolate agar is for Haemophilus and Neisseria. TCBS is for Vibrio cholerae.
Radiographer Paper (Questions 11–12)
Q11. In a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph, the patient is positioned with:
(A) Back facing the X-ray tube, chest against the image receptor
(B) Chest facing the X-ray tube, back against the image receptor
(C) Left side against the image receptor
(D) Patient lying supine on the table
Answer: (A) Back facing the X-ray tube, chest against the image receptor. In PA projection, the beam travels from posterior (back) to anterior (chest). The patient faces the image receptor (detector), minimizing cardiac magnification compared to AP view.
Q12. The ALARA principle in radiation protection stands for:
(A) Always Limit And Reduce Absorption (B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable (C) Avoid Large Area Radiation Applications (D) Accurate Level And Range Assessment
Answer: (B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable. ALARA is the foundational radiation protection principle — keep patient and worker exposure as low as possible while still achieving diagnostic quality. It involves justification, optimization, and dose limitation.
Strategy for the General Section — Easiest 20 Marks
The General section is your guaranteed scoring zone regardless of which technical post you are targeting. Here is how to approach it:
- Health Schemes — 10 facts, 3–4 marks: Memorize the launch year, benefit amount, and nodal body for PM-JAY, NHM, PMSSY, CGHS, and Ayushman Bharat. These are factual recall questions — no analysis needed.
- AIIMS facts — 2 marks: Know the year of establishment (1956), number of AIIMS institutes in India, and the Act under which new AIIMS are being set up (PMSSY).
- Reasoning — 4–5 marks: Series and analogy questions are predictable in pattern. Practice 20 questions a day for one week — that is enough for exam-level reasoning.
- MS Office shortcuts — 3 marks: Learn Ctrl+C, X, V, Z, Y, B, I, U, H (Find & Replace), Ctrl+Home/End in Word; SUM, MAX, MIN, AVERAGE, VLOOKUP functions in Excel; these 15 shortcuts/functions cover virtually everything asked.
- Basic biology — 2–3 marks: Vitamins and their deficiency diseases, blood groups (ABO system), heart chambers — standard 12th Biology level.
Target: 16–18 out of 20 in the General section. Combined with strong technical section performance, this takes you into the safe shortlist zone.
Difficulty Assessment
| Section/Post | Difficulty | Notes |
|---|
| General Section | Easy | Factual recall + basic reasoning. No surprises. |
| JAA / Administrative Technical | Easy to Moderate | Computer questions are application-based but standard MS Office/internet. |
| Pharmacist Technical | Moderate | Application-level Pharmacology. Drug mechanism Qs require subject knowledge. |
| JMLT Technical | Moderate | Haematology indices and microbiology identification require lab training knowledge. |
| Radiographer Technical | Moderate | Positioning Qs are factual; Radiation Physics Qs require conceptual clarity. |
| OT Technician Technical | Easy to Moderate | Anatomy + sterilization + surgical instrumentation at diploma level. |
| Medical Record Technician Technical | Easy | ICD coding basics, medical terminology, record management — standard diploma content. |
30-Day Preparation Plan
| Phase | Focus | Daily Activity |
|---|
| Week 1 (Days 1–7) | Foundation Building | Read your technical subject from scratch or revise final-year notes. Cover all major topic areas. For General: complete health scheme facts + AIIMS GK in 2 sessions. |
| Week 2 (Days 8–14) | Topic Depth | Go deep into the 3 highest-weighted topics for your post (e.g., Pharmacology + Pharma Chemistry + Pharmacy Practice for Pharmacist). Do 50 MCQs per day. |
| Week 3 (Days 15–21) | Mock Tests + Analysis | Take one full 100-Q mock every day. Review every wrong answer. Don't skip the General section in any mock — it is where marks are lost unnecessarily. |
| Week 4 Days 22–27 | Weak Area Attack | Identify the 2–3 topics where you get less than 50% accuracy in mocks. Study only those. No new topics. |
| Final Days 28–30 | Revision + Confidence | Revise the health scheme fact-sheet, key drug mechanisms, and MS Office shortcuts. Sleep well. Do 1 short 30-Q mock on Day 29. No study on the night before exam. |
👉 AIIMS CRE Salary 2026 — Check exactly what you will earn after selection — post-wise basic pay, HRA, and in-hand salary.
Frequently Asked Questions
Q: Does AIIMS release official previous year papers for CRE?
No. AIIMS does not officially release past CRE question papers. The topic patterns and question types described in this article are based on candidate feedback, coaching platform analyses (Testbook, Adda247), and community documentation from past exam takers on platforms like Scribd. Use these patterns as a preparation guide, not as a guarantee of exact questions.
Q: How many questions are in the General section and what marks does it carry?
The General section in AIIMS CRE typically has 20 questions worth 20 marks (1 mark each), common to all posts. This is in addition to the 80-question post-specific technical section. Total paper = 100 questions. Verify the exact negative marking rule from the official notification on aiimsexams.ac.in before the exam.
Q: For JMLT, how much Haematology knowledge is tested versus Microbiology?
Based on pattern analysis, Haematology takes the largest share — roughly 20–25 questions out of 80 technical questions — because it covers CBC parameters, blood disorders, coagulation, and blood banking concepts. Microbiology comes second at around 18–22 questions. Both are critical for JMLT — do not skip either subject in preparation.
Q: Is the Radiographer paper more Physics-heavy or Anatomy-heavy?
Anatomy and Positioning take the highest share (22–28 questions) compared to Radiation Physics (15–18 questions). However, Physics questions are more conceptually demanding — a single conceptual gap can cost you 3–4 marks. Spend equal preparation time on both even though Positioning has more questions.
Q: What is the most common mistake candidates make in the General section?
The most common mistake is neglecting it entirely because it is "only 20 marks." In reality, 3–5 marks in the General section are the deciding difference between shortlisted and not shortlisted in competitive rounds. The second common mistake is not memorizing exact numbers for health schemes — candidates know "Ayushman Bharat" but forget the ₹5 lakh figure or the 2018 launch year, and get the MCQ wrong.
Q: Should I appear for both Group B and Group C posts to maximize selection chances?
Yes, if you are eligible for both. You pay an additional ₹1,000 for the second group's application, but you effectively get two selection pools. Technical posts like Pharmacist may span both Group B and C depending on the post code in the notification — read the official vacancy list carefully to identify which group each post falls under before filling the form.
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